Monday, September 04, 2006
Here I argued that there's really no good argument against allowing generic drug manufacturers to manufacture low-cost versions of prescribed medications. However, here we find that a US judge has nonetheless ruled against the generic manufacturer. Unfortunately, there's very little detail about the grounds for the ruling, so I'm a little at a loss as to how to understand this decision. It's entirely possible that it was purely procedural -- someone didn't dot an "i" or cross a "t", and hence certain mechanically-derived penalties in legal procedures kick in. However, if that's not the case, then I'd be very curious as to the reasoning used to reach this conclusion, given the utter bankruptcy of the "innovation" claims.